📝 Practice MCQs
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🎙️ Frequently Asked Viva Questions
Q1. Why is the neck of the femur the most common site of femoral fractures?
Answer: It is the weakest part of the femur and is subjected to high bending stresses during weight transmission.
Q2. Why does an intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur commonly lead to avascular necrosis?
Answer: It disrupts the ascending retinacular arteries, the principal blood supply to the femoral head.
Q3. Why is the artery of the ligamentum teres unable to prevent avascular necrosis after femoral neck fracture?
Answer: It contributes only a small portion of the femoral head blood supply and cannot compensate for loss of retinacular arteries.
Q4. Why is the medial circumflex femoral artery considered the most important artery supplying the femoral head?
Answer: It gives rise to the major retinacular arteries that supply most of the femoral head and neck.
Q5. Why is the medial condyle longer than the lateral condyle?
Answer: It compensates for the medial inclination of the femoral shaft, allowing both femoral condyles to rest on the same horizontal plane.
Q6. Why is the neck-shaft angle important in normal gait?
Answer: It optimizes hip mobility and efficient transmission of body weight while permitting free movement of the lower limb.
Q7. What is the anatomical basis of coxa vara and coxa valga?
Answer: They result from decreased (<120°) or increased (>135°) femoral neck-shaft angle, respectively.
Q8. Why is the calcar femorale clinically important?
Answer: It reinforces the femoral neck and efficiently transmits body weight from the femoral head to the shaft.
Q9. Why is the lower end of the femur called the growing end?
Answer: It possesses the principal growth plate responsible for most longitudinal growth of the femur.
Q10. Why is the ossification center of the lower end of the femur important in forensic medicine?
Answer: Its appearance during the ninth fetal month indicates a full-term, viable newborn.
Q11. Why does the patella usually dislocate laterally rather than medially?
Answer: The oblique pull of the quadriceps and the valgus alignment of the femur create a lateral displacement force.
Q12. Why does a bipartite patella usually not represent a fracture?
Answer: It is a developmental variant due to unfused secondary ossification centers, is usually bilateral, and has smooth corticated margins.