📝 Practice MCQs
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🎙️ Frequently Asked Viva Questions
Q1. Why is the talus regarded as the keystone of the ankle joint?
Answer: It articulates with the tibia, fibula, calcaneus, and navicular, transmitting body weight from the leg to the foot.
Q2. Why is the talus the tarsal bone most prone to avascular necrosis?
Answer: It has no muscular attachments, and its vascular supply enters mainly through the neck, making it vulnerable after fracture or dislocation.
Q3. Why is the ankle joint more stable in dorsiflexion than in plantar flexion?
Answer: The broader anterior part of the trochlea of the talus fits tightly within the ankle mortise during dorsiflexion.
Q4. What is the anatomical importance of the sinus tarsi?
Answer: It is formed by the sulcus tali and sulcus calcanei and contains the interosseous talocalcaneal ligament, a major stabilizer of the subtalar joint.
Q5. Why is the sustentaculum tali called the “support of the talus”?
Answer: It forms a medial shelf supporting the talus and transmits body weight from the talus to the calcaneus.
Q6. Why is the groove beneath the sustentaculum tali clinically important?
Answer: It transmits the flexor hallucis longus tendon and serves as an important landmark in medial ankle surgery.
Q7. Why does a fall from a height commonly produce a calcaneal fracture?
Answer: Axial loading transmits body weight directly to the calcaneus, the principal weight-bearing bone of the heel.
Q8. Why is the first metatarsal short, thick, and strong?
Answer: It bears maximum load during the push-off phase of gait and transmits substantial body weight.
Q9. Why is the second metatarsal the most common site of a March fracture?
Answer: It is the longest metatarsal and is subjected to repetitive stress during prolonged walking or marching.
Q10. Why does a Jones fracture have a higher risk of delayed union or non-union?
Answer: It occurs in a relatively poorly vascularized region at the junction of the tuberosity and shaft of the fifth metatarsal.
Q11. Why is the fifth metatarsal tuberosity particularly prone to avulsion fractures?
Answer: Sudden inversion causes forceful pull of the peroneus brevis tendon attached to its tuberosity.
Q12. Why does the hallux have only two phalanges, unlike the other toes?
Answer: Two stout phalanges provide greater stability and efficient propulsion during the terminal stance and push-off phases of gait.