Lateral and Medial Sides of Leg – Quiz

📝 Practice MCQs

Welcome to your Lower Limb – Chapter 10 – Lateral and Medial Sides of Leg

The superficial peroneal nerve becomes subcutaneous and divides into terminal branches at the:

Junction of upper two-thirds and lower one-third of the leg

Neck of fibula

Lateral malleolus

Middle of the leg

None

A patient sustains an injury to the superficial peroneal nerve within the lateral compartment of the leg. Which of the following movements would be most severely affected?

Dorsiflexion of the foot

Plantar flexion of the foot

Extension of the great toe

Eversion of the foot

None

The muscles forming the 'guy ropes' of the medial side of the leg are derived from different compartments of the thigh. Which muscle among them belongs to the posterior compartment?

Sartorius

Adductor longus

Semitendinosus

Gracilis

None

The 'stirrup' mechanism supporting the arches of the foot is formed by the combined insertion of tibialis anterior and peroneus longus into the:

Calcaneus and cuboid

Intermediate cuneiform and second metatarsal

Navicular and cuboid

Medial cuneiform and base of first metatarsal

None

The term 'pes anserinus' refers to the conjoint tendons of all the following muscles EXCEPT:

Semimembranosus

Sartorius

Semitendinosus

Gracilis

None

The tendon of peroneus longus changes direction twice during its course. The second change in direction occurs at the:

Lateral malleolus

Cuboid bone

Sustentaculum tali

Base of first metatarsal

None

During surgical exploration of the ankle, the inferior peroneal retinaculum is incised. Which tendon occupies the upper compartment deep to this retinaculum?

Peroneus brevis

Peroneus longus

Flexor hallucis longus

Tibialis posterior

None

A patient with paralysis of both peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles is most likely to develop which deformity?

Talipes varus

Talipes valgus

Talipes calcaneus

Talipes equinus

None

Which of the following structures is considered a degenerated part of the tendon of adductor magnus?

Patellar ligament

Tibial collateral ligament

Oblique popliteal ligament

Fibular collateral ligament

None

Loss of sensation in the first interdigital cleft with preserved sensation over most of the dorsum of the foot indicates intact function of the:

Deep peroneal nerve only

Saphenous nerve only

Superficial peroneal nerve only

Sural nerve only

None

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🎙️ Frequently Asked Viva Questions

Q1. Why is the peroneus longus considered the most important dynamic stabilizer of the transverse arch of the foot?
Answer: Its tendon crosses the sole obliquely from lateral to medial, supporting the transverse arch during weight-bearing.

Q2. Why are the tibialis anterior and peroneus longus called the “stirrup” of the foot?
Answer: Their tendons insert on the medial cuneiform and first metatarsal from opposite sides, forming a sling that stabilizes the foot and maintains both longitudinal and transverse arches.

Q3. Why does the tendon of peroneus longus change direction twice before insertion?
Answer: It bends behind the lateral malleolus and again at the cuboid, allowing efficient transmission of force for eversion and arch support.

Q4. Why is a sesamoid bone commonly found within the tendon of peroneus longus?
Answer: It reduces friction and modifies the pull of the tendon where it changes direction around the cuboid.

Q5. Why does paralysis of the superficial peroneal nerve produce talipes varus?
Answer: Paralysis of the evertors leaves the invertors unopposed, causing inversion deformity of the foot.

Q6. Why does paralysis of the anterior compartment muscles produce talipes valgus?
Answer: Loss of inversion allows the normally functioning peroneal muscles to evert the foot excessively.

Q7. Why is foot eversion tested against resistance during examination of the superficial peroneal nerve?
Answer: Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis are the principal evertors and are both supplied by the superficial peroneal nerve.

Q8. Why does injury to the superficial peroneal nerve spare sensation in the first interdigital cleft?
Answer: The first web space is supplied exclusively by the deep peroneal nerve.

Q9. Why is the tibial collateral ligament described as a degenerated tendon of the adductor magnus?
Answer: Embryologically, it represents the persistent distal tendon of the hamstring part of the adductor magnus.

Q10. Why are the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus referred to as the “guy ropes” of the pelvis?
Answer: They arise from the ilium, pubis, and ischium respectively and converge at the pes anserinus, stabilizing the pelvis like tent ropes.

Q11. Why is the pes anserinus clinically important?
Answer: It provides dynamic medial knee stability and is the site of anserine bursitis, causing medial knee pain.

Q12. Why is the medial surface of the tibia commonly selected for surgical approaches and clinical examination?
Answer: It is largely subcutaneous, providing easy access while avoiding major muscles and neurovascular structures.